Short answer. Not necessarily — it depends on when the credit actually fell due. Article 1629 caps an undated warranty of solvency at one year, counted from the assignment if the credit was already due when you sold it, or from the maturity date if it was not. Which clock applies decides whether two years is already too late.
What the law says
it shall last for one year only, from the time of the assignment if the period had already expired.
Civil Code, Article 1629 — Duration of Warranty of Solvency. Read the full provision →
What the law says
If the credit should be payable within a term or period which has not yet expired, the liability shall cease one year after the maturity.
Civil Code, Article 1629 — Duration of Warranty of Solvency. Read the full provision →
A warranty of solvency does not run forever
Promising that a debtor would pay is a warranty of solvency, and Article 1629 does not let that promise stay open-ended when the parties never wrote down how long it would last. Where the assignor made himself responsible for the debtor's solvency in good faith, and no duration was agreed, the law itself supplies a one-year limit. Past that year, the assignor stops answering for the debtor's ability to pay, even if the debtor later turns out unable to pay at all.
Which one-year clock applies depends on the credit's due date
Article 1629 sets two different starting points. If the credit was already due at the moment you sold it, your one-year warranty ran from the date of that assignment — meaning it would have expired well before the debtor's default two years later. If the credit still had time left to run when you assigned it, the warranty instead runs one year after the maturity date, not from the sale. Two years since the sale does not, by itself, tell you which clock governs.
If the default came right around when the credit matured
If the debtor's default two years later happened at or near the credit's original maturity date — meaning the credit was not yet due when you sold it — Article 1629 gives you a further year measured from that maturity before your warranty ends. In that scenario, a default at the two-year mark could still fall inside your warranty period, since the one-year window would run through the third year.
If the credit was already overdue when you assigned it
The outcome is different if the credit was already past due at the time you sold it. There, Article 1629 starts the one-year clock on the assignment itself, not on any later maturity. A default surfacing two years afterward would fall outside that window, and your warranty of solvency would already have lapsed — unless the assignment document set a different, longer duration by agreement, in which case that agreed term controls instead of the statutory year.