Short answer. No. Either spouse may exercise any legitimate profession, occupation, business or activity without the consent of the other. A husband may object only on valid, serious and moral grounds, and where the spouses disagree it is the court, not the objecting spouse, that decides whether the objection is proper.

What the law says

Either spouse may exercise any legitimate profession, occupation, business or activity without the consent of the other. The latter may object only on valid, serious, and moral grounds.

Family Code, Article 73 — Right to Exercise a Profession or Business. Read the full provision →

What the law says

If the benefit accrued prior to the objection, the resulting obligation shall be enforced against the separate property of the spouse who has not obtained consent.

Family Code, Article 73 — Right to Exercise a Profession or Business. Read the full provision →

Consent is not the starting position

The article opens by giving each spouse the freedom outright: either may exercise any legitimate profession, occupation, business or activity without the consent of the other. Permission is not the default that an objection then overrides; the freedom is the default, and the objection is the exception that has to justify itself. The one qualifier built into the grant is the word legitimate, which goes to the lawfulness of the work rather than to whether the other spouse approves of it. A husband who says his wife may not take a job has not exercised a legal power. He has stated a preference.

What an objection has to be made of

An objection is available, but on a narrow footing: it must rest on grounds that are valid, serious and moral. All three adjectives are doing work, and they are cumulative. Dislike of the employer, discomfort about the hours, wounded pride at a spouse earning more, or a general view that a wife should be at home do not meet that description. The provision is built for genuinely serious situations — work that endangers the family, or that is incompatible with obligations the objecting spouse can actually identify — and not as a veto dressed up in statutory language.

The court decides, and it decides two things

Where the spouses disagree, the article does not leave the matter to whoever is more insistent. It sends the question to court, and it tells the court exactly what to determine: whether the objection is proper, and whether benefit has accrued to the family prior to the objection or afterwards. That second question shows what the provision is really balancing. The Code is not only asking whether one spouse may work; it is also asking who bears the obligations the work generates, which is why the family's benefit from the activity is put in issue alongside the propriety of the objection.

The consequence attaches to money, not to the right

The remainder of the article deals with liability rather than permission. Where the benefit accrued before the objection, the resulting obligation is enforced against the separate property of the spouse who did not obtain consent — a charge on that spouse's own assets rather than a bar on the activity. And the provisions are expressly stated not to prejudice the rights of creditors who acted in good faith, so a supplier or lender dealing honestly with a working spouse is not caught in the couple's disagreement. If this dispute is live in your household, the practical questions are what the objection is actually based on and what obligations the business has already incurred.

Cases citing this provision

These Supreme Court decisions cite the provision above. We list them so you can read them yourself; the summaries of what each decided are not ours to give.

Related provisions

Note. Statute text quoted on this page is reproduced from the official enactment and is linked to the full provision. The explanation around it is general legal information from Vivas & Nobles Law Office, not legal advice. Whether it applies to your situation depends on facts only a lawyer reviewing them can assess.