Short answer. Yes. Article 1595 allows the seller to maintain an action for the price itself when ownership of the goods has passed to the buyer and he wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay according to the contract's terms. Because title already transferred, you may sue directly for the price rather than only for damages.
What the law says
Where, under a contract of sale, the ownership of the goods has passed to the buyer and he wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract of sale, the seller may maintain an action against him for the price of the goods.
Civil Code, Article 1595 — Seller's Action for the Price. Read the full provision →
Ownership passing is what unlocks this specific remedy
Article 1595 states the rule for exactly your situation: where, under a contract of sale, the ownership of the goods has passed to the buyer and he wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract of sale, the seller may maintain an action against him for the price of the goods. Because title to the goods you sold has already passed to your buyer, you are not limited to a claim for damages resulting from his refusal to pay; you can sue directly for the agreed price itself.
Why suing for the price is different from suing for damages
An action for the price treats your buyer's obligation as a straightforward debt for the amount agreed upon in the contract, rather than requiring you to prove the extent of your loss the way a damages claim typically would. This matters because once ownership has passed, the buyer holds the goods as his own, and his refusal to pay is treated as a failure to satisfy a fixed monetary obligation rather than merely a breach requiring you to establish resulting harm and its value.
The requirement that the refusal be wrongful
The article specifically requires that the buyer wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay. If your buyer has a legitimate legal basis for withholding payment, such as a genuine dispute over defects in the goods or some other valid ground recognized under your contract or the law, that could affect whether his refusal counts as wrongful for purposes of this article. Assuming there is no such legitimate basis here, and the buyer is simply declining to pay what he owes, the wrongful element is satisfied.
What this means for pursuing your claim
Since ownership of the goods has already passed to your buyer and his refusal to pay appears to be without valid justification, Article 1595 supports an action against him for the full contract price rather than a more limited damages claim. Gathering your contract terms, proof that title passed, and evidence of the buyer's refusal to pay will help support this action, since establishing those specific facts is what brings your claim within this provision.